Read my main question on the translation of Gal 3:21 "if a law had been given" by all modern bible versions, and try to answer if it is the biggest mistranslation in the Bible based on the bias that the law could never give life, which Paul never suggested? https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/25183/is-it-appropriate-to-translate-galatians-321-as-if-a-law-had-been-given
Member for 4 years, 10 months
3 profile views
Last seen Jun 25 at 12:41
- Biblical Hermeneutics 1.6k 1.6k 11 gold badge1010 silver badges2727 bronze badges
- Christianity 631 631 44 silver badges1212 bronze badges
- Mi Yodeya 267 267 11 silver badge77 bronze badges
- English Language & Usage 141 141 55 bronze badges
- Android Enthusiasts 111 111 22 bronze badges
- View network profile
Top network posts
- 11 What are the oldest known records of interpretation agreeing with New Perspective on Paul?
- 10 Is it appropriate to translate Galatians 3:21 as "If a law had been given"?
- 8 Why is there a separation between Luke and Acts?
- 6 What is an overview of Lutheran faith-alone systematically taught before Martin Luther?
- 6 Old Testament Evidence of the Hypostatic Union
- 5 Does being "least in the kingdom" signify hell in Matt 5:19?
- 5 Which work did Jesus mean in John 17:4 about already finishing the work that God gave him?
- View more network posts →