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So.. nearly the same Bible verse is used to point to nearly the same idea, one is explicit,

https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/4902/4

one needs a little clarification

https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/4897/4

Which is better?

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    This would be a great question on BH. not sure of its topicality on meta. – wax eagle Dec 9 '11 at 14:04
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There are bits of both answers that are good.

Wikis' answer is good because it cites a specific Bible verse. Something that's particularly good in this case is that the same word, "carpenter", is used across most (if not all) main versions of the Bible. The verse itself answers the question explicitly.

Affable Geek's answer is good because it goes back to the original language, explaining that tekton might not necessarily mean carpenter (so we don't know for sure that Joseph was a carpenter, let alone Jesus) and giving the context - it would have been highly unusual for Jesus to not learn Joseph's trade.

So the best answer would synthesize these points together; the verse, the translation, the historical context. Personally I upvoted Wikis' answer as it's the more explicit, and cites a reference (although AG's answer is referenceable so complies with our "good, supported answer" criteria).

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