5

So, say I have a question concerning the translation of a Patristic text, say, of Gregory of Nazianzus. It would go something like this:


In his first discourse, Gregory of Nazianzus wrote,

εἴπωμεν, ἀδελφοὶ, καὶ τοῖς μισοῦσιν ἡμᾶς, μὴ ὅτι τοῖς δι' ἀγάπην τι πεποιηκόσιν, ἢ πεπονθό σι·

Such and such translated it as,

Blah blah blah

I believe it would be more accurately translated as,

Yada yada yada

Can someone offer some insight on the translation of the Greek text?


I don't think that question belongs on BH.SE. Does it have a place here at Christianity.SE?

5
  • 4
    My personal feeling would be "no". This site is more about doctrine, and less about accurate translation from Hebrew, Greek, or Aramaic to English. But I don't feel strongly enough about that to post that as an answer. – David Stratton Dec 16 '14 at 4:01
  • 1
    I was feeling the same way. Just wanted to be sure. Thanks! – user900 Dec 16 '14 at 4:50
  • 1
    @H3br3wHamm3r81 Why is that off-topic at BH? – fгedsbend Dec 16 '14 at 19:09
  • 1
    @fredsbend: I thought BH only involved scripture (i.e., the Bible). – user900 Dec 16 '14 at 21:06
  • @H3br3wHamm3r81 I honestly, don't know. I thought you knew. – fгedsbend Dec 16 '14 at 21:23

You must log in to answer this question.