Here is the question.
Does this one belong in hermaneutics, as it seems to be related to the interpretation of that specific verse, or not? If not, why?
Thanks, I'm just trying to get a better feel for what is and isn't on-topic.
It wouldn't be particularly helpful over there in my view as it's fundamentally unanswerable from an analysis of that particular text in isolation without recourse to a theological framework. If you (as you should in this case) are specifying a particular theological framework - eg Trinitarianism - then it would be more appropriate on this site (but as I've commented, it does then become a trivial question).