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I believe this question should be re-opened

The reasons to close for a possible duplicate are:

  1. What major discrepancies exist between “versions” of the Bible?
  2. Lineage of Each Verse of Scripture

1) is similar, however it's overly vague.

2) "Lineage of Each Verse of Scripture" what?!? really?!? The answers may be similar but the questions are completely different. Anyone searching for questions is not going to stumble on "Lineage of Each Verse of Scripture" to find their answer.

Please consider voting to reopen

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  • I'll vote to reopen if you can explain specifically what you're looking for that is not covered in the other two questions. I guess I'm just not seeing the difference.
    – Bruce Alderman
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:28
  • Just because the answers are similar does not mean the questions are the same. If I were searching for textual critics of the bible, I would never consider looking at Lineage of Each Verse of Scripture. Don't forget, it's close as a duplicate question. Not potential duplicate answers.
    – user1054
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:32
  • Granted, your title is better. What would be the advantage of reopening your question vs. retitling the other?
    – Bruce Alderman
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:35
  • "Has there been a project that traces the genealogy of each verse of the scripture? I.e., for each verse, it traces back through all the documents it was translated from, the default translations at the time, ... all the way back to historically verifiable fragments? I'm not talking about a generic "this book of the bible came from XYZ". I'm talking about details at the grainularity of a single verse. I.e, for each verse, trace it's lineage, through all the translations, back to the original inspired writers." How is this the same question?
    – user1054
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:39
  • My question is specifically this, "can we trust that the Bible is the same original word of God?" Neither of these questions ask this. While their answers may touch this question, it is not the same question.
    – user1054
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:42
  • OK, if that's your focus then I agree it's not a duplicate. But then is it too subjective? I would say the answer to the question is clearly no, but I think many here would say yes. I don't think it would yield a single objective answer.
    – Bruce Alderman
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:47
  • Let's not assume and judge based on what other people may think or do. Let them do their thing. While you may not expect a single objective answer, if the question is not opened, we'll never know for sure.
    – user1054
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:52
  • Fair enough. I've voted to reopen.
    – Bruce Alderman
    Aug 22, 2012 at 20:55
  • 4
    Good job to all involved getting this closed, fixed and reopened without any mod intervention! sign of a maturing community.
    – wax eagle
    Aug 23, 2012 at 19:51

1 Answer 1

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I agree that your question is worded much more clearly than the one I linked to. If for no other reason than as a signpost, I'm willing to rescind my VTC, and move to a reopen :)

Why I called this a duplicate is that the two answers referenced combine exactly your answer your question.

1.) What variation exists? gets to the root of the "has it changed" question

2.) What is the lineage? gives you the resource to see exactly how the manuscripts differ, at the word-in-each-verse level.

Believe it or not, I think this was the first VTC I've ever done on a question of yours, and I promise it isn't out of malice. (I may often disagree with you, but as Monika says, I like your critical thinking.)

I still think this question covers existing ground, however.

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    Since we're being candid; I've told you that I hate to agree with you however you're right more often than not. :)
    – user1054
    Aug 23, 2012 at 1:18

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